AANEM Connect

If I am not on a particular insurance panel but the patient wants to see me anyway and pay the "self pay" rate, do I have to do anything differently?  It seems this would not be balance billing.  Sometimes my self pay rate is higher than the insurance rates, sometimes lower depending upon the insurance (the self pay amount does not change).  We submit the bill as my usual charges with a courtesy discount to the self pay rates.  Thoughts? JMB

2 questions:
We had a patient with prior CTS surgery (about 8 years prior) who had delayed distal latency (6.8ms) on the median motor with low amplitude of 1mV.  The proximal CMAP was low amplitude and the CV was slow.  The median sensory digit II was 3.3ms at a distance of 14cm with an amplitude of 12uV.  Pt also has a C8 radiculopathy on EMG.

1. Was I dreaming or have I heard of a "purely motor only" CTS at an AANEM meeting.  Is that a real thing?    

2. Does the median motor and median sensory recover, after CTS surgery, at different rates for remyelination and axonal regrowth?  As in the situation above, could the sensory segment have remyelinated and recovered (even with shortened internodal distances) quicker than the motor component? Could that contribute to the sensory being normal and the median motor abnormal?

Thanks to all you smart doctors in advance!
Carrie  REPT, RNCST, CNCT

I am a long time user of TECA elite monopolar needles and have significant difficulty or delays in obtaining needles for my last 2 quarterly shipments to the point where I was on the verge of postponing or delaying scheduled EDx. I am wondering if this problem is widespread with all suppliers. I have a small backup cache of Ambu needles which I put into service but have avoided using them as they are very prone to 60Hz interference. 

Hello
I have a patient who would like to be enrolled in an ALS clinical trial.
She is 43 yo and has C9ORF72 expansion, and she has family living in UK.
She has an excellent perfomance status, with no Dementia, and only lower limb signs and symptoms.
What would be your recommendation for a recruting center for this kind of trial, preferably in the UK?
Thanks for your help

Dear EDX Colleagues

We are conducting a survey on teaching preferences for the diagnosis of mild distal entrapment neuropathies.  We would greatly appreciate your time to complete our survey via the following link.  Please feel free to forward the link to other EDX practitioners.

Thank you.


https://forms.gle/hkzRN98QrLe5vyds8

Hello, 

How long on average would you say a SFEMG takes and how many do you usually do in a day?  Do you know the reimbursement/RVU?

I would be grateful for any wisdom or advice on this case as I have found little in the literature. I have a female in her 40s who is otherwise healthy whom I saw for the first time after a 12 month history of insidious 'boring' pain in her right upper trapezius and SCM, with some fasciculation and cramping and then more recenty marked wasting and weakness. No history of neuropathic type pain at onset to support neuralgic amyotrophy and course seems much more protracted that I would expect.

By the time I saw her she has lost essentially all right SCM and trapezius function and I was unable to needle traps on EMG, going straight through it into rhomboid minor when attempted. No sensory symptoms and UL NCS otherwise normal (I confess, I did not attempt NCS of spinal accessory itself). MRI including fine slices through region of jugular foramen, CSF analysis (protein, cells) and CT chest abdomen and pelvis have all been unrevealing.

Are any of the systemic autoimmune diseases prone to picking off the accessory like that? What else do I need to consider? At this stage, feeling rather deflated and will be looking at orthopaedic referral as only means of addressing her poor function and mechanically induced significant pain.

All comments very welcome!

hello, 
I have had a cluster of myositis cases in the hospital lately that I shared care with rheumatology and they are fairly univerally ordering myositis specific antibody pannels.  These pannesl came out after my fellowship training and I don't feel like I have great comfort in interpreting the pannel results.  Does anyone have a resource that they feel is helpful in decipering these panels and how the data impacts diagnosis, management or prognosis in clinical patient care?    Addtionally, any experience/pearls would be welcome and appreciated.  

Recently I saw a 31 year-old male showing involuntary muscle twitch isolated in right brachioradialis (around elbow) for 2 months almost interfering his daily life. Normal neurological examination except large muscle twitch in right arm. (normal sensory and muscle strength)

He was diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus before 1 week visiting our clinic. (hemoglobin A1c 10%). His hemoglobin level was elevated (17.2 g/dL), but normal thyroid function test, metabolic panel, and serum CK.

NCS was unremarkable.
EMG only showed spontaneous discharges as below with normal MUAP in right brachioradialis muscle. (sensitivity 500 uV/division, sweep speed 10ms/division)

Can it be considered as fasciculation potentials?  Too long duration and followed by small positive sharp wave-like discharges ... 
But it does not seem to be categorized to well-known, typical abnormal spontaneous activity by definitions. 

   

Does anyone have guidance on the relationship of vitamin B6 toxicity and laboratory reference range of this vitamin?  Our lab measures B6 in mcg/L with a normal range of 2-32.8mcg/L.  In our workup of axonal polyneuropathy, we frequently receive results slightly outside of the range (40mcg/L) and infrequently much higher (156mcg/L is the highest we've seen).  My understanding is that B6 neurotoxicity is very rare and generally occurs with supplementation above 1000mg daily.  As we see these abnormal results in patients frequently and in those who do not take high dose supplement, I question the lab cutoff as a marker for neurotoxicity.  

I'd appreciate any insight others have in addressing this issue. 

I am hoping that some of you have some insight as to how to sell a private neuromuscular dz/ EMG practice. I have built up a very enjoyable and profitable practice centered in Duluth MN. I have been here for 30 years and will retire fairly soon. I don't want to shut the practice down; it is successful enough that I ought to be able to sell it. Just as important, I have a very large referral basis of orthopedic and neurosurgeons plus primary care that will be in a lurch if I leave. I did find a business that made up a website for me https://sellingapractice.com/nnm but that's about all they do. I am not sure how to proceed from here. Thoughts/ suggestions?

Thanks in advance: Has anyone treated patients with chilblain lupus who have severe symptoms of small fiber neuropathy? See questions at end of post. Appreciate your help.

The patient is a 45-year-old woman with 5 years of symptoms in the hands and 3 years of symptoms in the feet. Symptoms are sensitivity, swelling, pain with activity, redness with activity, and neuropathic pain. On exam she has visible edema and rubor in the extremities. No neuro deficits apart from altered temperature sense in feet. 

1) Derm workup: Skin biopsy with dermatology revealed chronic cutaneous lupus erythematosus, compatible with chilblains lupus. 
2) Neuro workup: Abnormal QSWEAT. Normal Therapath skin biopsy. Normal NCS (sural 15-20 uV). 
3) Rheum workup: CRP 0.6 (ULN 0.5), ESR 36 (ULN 20). Otherwise, extensive labs are normal including WashU sensory neuropathy Ab, paraneoplastic panel, CBC, CMP, cryoprotein, B12 681, CK 76, ferritin, C3, C4, proteinase 3, myeloperoxidase Ab, ANA, SSA, SSB, Sm, RNP, Scl70, Jo1, cANCA, pANCA, SPIE, FLC, HIV, Hep C Ab. A1c 5.5.  

Treatment trials:
1) For vascular component: Nifedipine caused swelling. Pentoxyfylline (Trental) 400 TID is helping with toe swelling. 
2) For neuropathic pain component: Duloxetine and pregabalin are helping a little. Side effects from low dose venlafaxine, gabapentin. Compound cream (ketamine and amitryptyline) didn't help. 
3) For immune process: On plaquenil 300 mg daily - unclear if helping. Prednisone 40 mg daily caused severe foot pain.

Questions:
- Have you treated patients like this?
- Any other ideas for workup? Genetic testing for small fiber neuropathy is pending. Genetic testing for genetic causes of chilblain is also pending (maybe her case isn't immune)
- Do you know how to order plexin antibody testing? 
- Any other ideas for treatment? We are going to try prednisone again at a lower dose of 10 mg daily.  

Thanks again. She is grateful for your input. 
 

Sarada

 

 

I finally have a clinical case question worthy of this community.  All the relevant details of the presentation are below. This was not an easy diagnosis. I had to reflect on it overnight to realize what it was because I'd never seen it before. If you want to skip ahead, the quesiton is at the bottom of this post. 

CLINICAL HISTORY
79 year old left handed male with PMH of prior carpal tunnel releases 2013 who began dropping things from both hands 2019 and suffered associated right neck shoulder pai. Epidural offered 2 days of pain relief. MRI 8/2021 revealed "multilevel severe DDD/spondylosis with extensive flowing anterior osteophytosis suggestive of DISH and mild abnormal cord signal at C5-6 suggesting an element of cord atrophy." His neurologist sent him to a spine surgeon who documented rt deltoid/biceps/triceps/grip and finger flexor weakness with right thena atrophy. For this reason 10/2021 he underwent C7-T1 and T2-3 lami and C5-T3 posterior fusion. 

The pain has resolved but he has noted winging of his scapula, inability to comb hair, elevate arm and use fingers rt>lt.

CLINICAL EXAM
On exam, his CTR incisions are strangely distal in the palm (?). He has an extensive cervical incisional line which is healed. Right grip, D3 DIP flexion, and bilateral D1/5 abduction are 4/5. Right D3 DIP flexion 3/5. Otherwise 5/5 bilateral humeral ext rotation, shrug, and elbow/wrist extension/flexion.

At rest the scapulae are nearly symmetric. With forward flexion more than abduction, there is medial deviation and prominence of the lower medial border/angle of the scapula. He is unable to get to 90 degrees with these due to weakness but this is correctable with assisted scapular depression by the examiner. NO pain reported with these motions. 

ELECTRODIAGNOSTIC FINDINGS
There were no borderline findings. SNAPs and CMAPs in ulnar nerves were normal. CMAPs bilat MEDIANs revealed prolonged onsets, mildly slowed NCVs, and normal left but severely diminished right amplitudes without significant drops in amplitude with proximal stimulations.  Meidan SNAPs also revealed prolonged latencies, slowed conduction velocities at the wrists, and normal left amplitudes but significant drop in amplitude when going from palm to wrist. 

NEE: Parapsinals were avoided due to recent incision. Fibs/PSWs in bilat FDI, rt EIP/Triceps (latter two had diminished recruitment). Otherwise NORMAL bilateral delboids, biceps, pronator teres. NORMAL left triceps, trapezius, Rhomboid Major, Infraspinatus. I did attempt needling the SERRATUS anterior but it was my first time doing so since residency. Whatever i needled was normal

ELECTRODIAGNOSTIC IMPRESSION:
This is an abnormal study. There is EDx evidence at this time of bilat rt>lt lower cervical (possibly C8) radiculopathy. There is EDx evidence at this time of bilat demyelinating sensorimotor median neuropathies at the wrists. 

CLINICAL IMPRESSION
IMPAIRED HAND STRENGTH/DEXTERITY: from an electrodiagnostic perspective, there appears to be a prominent bilateral C8 radiculopathy superimposed over bilateral median mononeuropathy which is compromising his hand function. The findings today do not support a plexus lesion of the C8 ramus, lower trunk, or medial cord. Pre-operatively, this was also evident. Hand therapy to improve strength and function are indicated while awaiting the results of neural regeneration/reinnervation.

LEFT SCAPULAR WINGING: clinically presents with compromised trapezius more than serratus or rhomboid involvement. Spinal accessory, suprascapular, and generally upper cervical roots (C5-6) and
upper plexus (C5/6 rami, upper trunk) appear unaffected on today’s electrodiagnostic testing. On inspection, the location of the extensive cervical spine scar suggests that there could be a compromised trapezius from direct incisional injury to the trapezius. This could certainly explain the winging and, after consideration for potential reattachment by the surgeon, should be addressed with scapular stabilizer strengthening in physical therapy. Despite this and the findings on physical exam, serratus anterior (long thoracic nerve) remains on the differential and could be further evaluated by bringing the patient back in for needle EMG of the serratus anterior muscle.

QUESTION FOR AANEM COMMUNITY
The surgeon reviewed the MRI and was able to confirm that there are about 2 inches of trapezial fascia and muscle that have retracted away from the spinous processes (per surgeon, this is a very small percentage of the incision). A reputable surgeon, he has done numerous laminectomies with extensive incisions and never faced this. I have never heard of this before. If anyone on the forum has, what did you do for them?

If not, the question is, 3 months out, would it be better to just start working on scapular stabilizaiton in therapy or would there be value in re-attaching the trapezial fibers. The downside to the latter is delay of rehabilitation while healing and subjecting him to potential complications of a second surgery.  

please don't be shy and thanks in advance

Wondering what other experience the group may have.
I saw a 61 YO man who came in today for routine annual followup and med refills for a small fiber neuropathy. He mentioned that he was being treated for a left rotator cuff tear.
In late October he received Moderna #2 in left deltoid. About 36 hours later he developed intense pain in the shoulder lasting 48 hours followed by weakness in shoulder musculature. He had a followup with an orthopod who had performed a left TKR and diagnosed him with a RC tear (no comment). On exam, only had forward and lateral flexion of LUE to 90 degrees and weakness of infraspinatus, but full passive ROM. EDX with fibs in deltoid, BC, supraspinatus and infraspinatus. Rhomboids and PS clean. 
Diagnosis seems clear. I read a couple case reports. Also curious if there is any predilection for post-vaccine plexitis to develop in the injected arm. 

Hello All,
Looking for resources or apps to learn about EMG

Thank you for your help
 

I have a 72 y/o patient who presented to EMG for my colleague with
weakness of both legs. EMG is showing absent superficial peroneal bilaterally. Sural is 5.5 bilaterally. Peroneal motor amplitudes were 1.4 and 1.2 going down to 0.7 bilaterally with no slowing across the knees .

abnormal muscles on needling are TA, PL, EHL. 

everything else is normal. 

brought her in for a full Neuro exam. Only dorsiflexion, eversion and big toe extension are weak. Sensation diminished on dorsum of the feet only. 

Mri of the knees showed faint edema with no atrophy of the TA
of note , she had bilateral injection in both knees for pain just before this started (medial approach)

Just not comfortable with all of sudden, bilateral painless peroneal neuropathy. 

ALS ruled out. Needling everywhere, negative. No other weakness or symptoms

I would greatly appreciate any comments or thoughts regarding the further management of a patient who has given me permission to present his case in this forum. 

He is a 66yo male who underwent a liver transplant for alcoholic cirrhosis complicated by hepatocellular carcinoma in February 2018. He noted difficulty walking immediate post transplant with progressive sensory loss and imbalance. In early 2021, this became signifiantly worse and culminated in a fall with an ankle fracture. During admission, I was consulted and he was noted to have a sensory > motor polyneuropathy with lower limb predominance and nerve conduction studies confirmed a generalised demyelinating polyneuropathy. This was in the context of being on tacrolimus and mycophenolate therapy. Initial consideration was given to the possibility of a tacrolimus associated neuropathy given the onset at the time of transplant with possible worsening in the setting of dose escalation.

He was subsequently found to have IgM kappa paraprotein (3g/L) and positive high titre MAG antibodies on both ELISA and Western blot.

He had significant but incomplete clinical response to IVIg therapy with improvement in balance and distal strength. He remains on mycophenolate and a reduced dose of tacrolimus. He is on maintenance IVIg and notices his foot "slapping" more when walking in the week prior to his 4 weekly infusions.

Is there cause to push to switch his tacrolimus to an alternative - such as cyclosporin which will put him at risk of developing diabetes? Would anyone consider rituximab therapy for MAG neuropathy given persisting gait dysfunction - taking into account he is already immunosuppressed for his liver transplant? What are your thoughts on the development of a presumably autoimmune neuropathy in the setting of immunosuppression?

Thank you for your wisdom!

Today I saw a 25-year-old woman complaining of generalized numbness, tingling and itching over her trunk, extremities and scalp. This started a year ago , and she was treated as if this were an allergic reaction since she had severe allergic reactions to medications in the past. She was treated with antihistamines, IV steroids, etc. with only temporary improvement. She was seen by several dermatologist and neurologists , initially without change in her symptoms. She was started on gabapentin for the possibility that this was a neuropathy. This finally did markedly improve her symptoms . Most of the paresthesias in her trunk and extremities cleared, although they  are  still present over her face and scalp. Her physical exam today was essentially normal. The electrodiagnostic studies done today showed normal electromyography of all extremities. The nerve conduction study showed normal motor and sensory conduction studies in the distal extremities. Median and ulnar sensory amplitude's were 60 to 80 µV, and sural amplitude's were greater than 30 µV. Medial and lateral plantar sensory studies were easily obtainable and also showed large amplitudes. However, when testing proximal sensory conduction, a completely different picture arose. I was unable to obtain medial or lateral antebrachial cutaneous sensory studies in either arm. I have always found these easy to obtain in young patients who have large distal sensory responses. Since I began doing  the procedure for lateral antebrachial cutaneous sensory conduction in 1978, I was sure I was performing this correctly. In the lower extremities, I could not obtain a response in the lateral femoral cutaneous nerve, although it too  is usually obtainable in thin patients  with large distal sensory responses.

Motor artifact can be an annoy to SNAP (antidromic sensory study). It was told that moving the recording electrode away from the muscle would minimize it. This worked when possible. 

I wonder if longer stim duration ( say 0.2 ms instead of default setting of 0.1 ms) while lowering the stimulation intensity (60% perhaps) would stimulate sensory fibers preferentially to motor fibers, hence lesser motor interference?

Why or why not? Thanks

I'm wondering if anyone believes neurapraxia can give small distal motor amplitudes. 

We recently had a case of ulnar neuropathy at the elbow with distal CMAPs of 0.7 mV to ADM and 0.2 mV to FDI with only 1/5 strength in those 2 muscles.  She had surgery which released marked compression under the FCU and only 2 months later she had 4/5 strength.  I think it's too early for axon regrowth (she's 65 y/o and diabetic) so I'm wondering if the neurapraxia somehow affected the axons distally, giving small CMAPs?

Larry Robinson

 

I am considering buying my new sierra summit from current practice to use in a new job. Is there an additional cpt code or tech fee for owning the machine?

thanks

Does anyone have any experience of using simulation in training? I am aware of Dr Nandedkar's website, but are there any limbs or programmes that have been developed for use in training?

I did an emg on a patient that has had three thoracotomies, The last one included   and a Lat  Dorsi and serratus ant transfer. Post of pt had some scapular winging. No change  with shoulder abduction or protraction. NCS of the LTN was compared side to side. There was  a decreased amplitude of the NCS and normal latency. EMG  MUAPs showed small polyphaisc potentials,  and  reduced recruitment  or  poor activation without large MUAPs.  There were no fibs or positive waves. I thought there were a few CRDs. With the previous surgeries a dn msucle flaps , I am reluctant to call this a LT neuropathy as there is signifciant anatomical changes with the previous surgery. I  am not confident that this is a LT neuropathy. Perhaps the CRDs and small polyphasic MUAP were false postives becuase of muscle damage from the surgeries. 

Can Covid induced NMJ Blockade be named under Myasthenia? Or it is considered a different entity?

I am interested in purchasing a Neuromax, 2 or 4 channel, any year except a white model.  Prefer with the cart, but not necessarily.